Will Britain recognize Indian holocaust? - Page 2

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@K.Universe.

IF-Dazzler

Posted: 8 years ago

This content was originally posted by: Druids

So there are high rates of malnutrition in India at the moment and according to your Merriam Webster definition, this is a result of famine. Am I missing something here Sir? Where was the famine in India recently?

You also gave figures of how India exports so many agricultural products when so many Indians are "malnourished". Sorry Sir, I missed it again. When did the recent Indian famine happen?

"Where is the famine" is a trick question. The correct answer is "in India". If 1/6 of the billion plus population is undernourished, if India is home to the largest undernourished and hungry population in the world and yet if there is sufficient food production that "surplus" is being exported out, then yes, by definition there is, even though technically there isn't. Go figure!

http://www.indiafoodbanking.org/hunger

Reason I brought up the current stats is to point out that government policies of the past few decades could very well be causing the hunger issue to persist coupled with other factors such as exports, inflation, droughts and more, and these factors could very well have existed even back in 1943 (as "refute" to the original claim)

Hope you follow.

P.S: US debt has as much to do with this subject as you have to do with Mensa so unless you want to troll in the topic that you yourself created, please stick to famine / hunger.

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Summer3

@Summer3

IF-Stunnerz

+ 2

Posted: 8 years ago

Bengal Famine extract from wiki

The Bengal famine of 1943 (Bengali: ) struck the Bengal Province of pre-partition British India (present-day West Bengal, Odisha, Bihar and Bangladesh) during World War II following the Japanese occupation of Burma. Approximately 3 million people died due to famine.^[1]^[2] Generally the estimates are between 1.5 and 4 million,^[3] taking into account death due to starvation, malnutrition and disease, out of Bengal's 60.3 million population. Half of the victims died from disease after food became available in December 1943.^[4] Generally it is thought that there was a serious decrease in food production during that time, coupled with Bengal's continuing export of grain.^[5]^[6] However according to Amartya Sen, there was no significant decrease in food production in 1943 (in fact food production was higher compared to 1941).^[3] As in previous Bengal famines,^[7] the highest mortality was not in previously very poor groups, but among artisans and small traders whose income vanished when people spent all they had on food and did not employ cobblers, carpenters, etc.^[8] The famine also caused major economic and social disruption, ruining millions of families.^[9]

https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Bengal_famine_of_1943

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1047050

Posted: 8 years ago

Yes, I have also read about this. Amartya Sen apparently wrote that there was a famine in Bengal because Bengalis ate too much rice.

I wonder how he knew about this. 😆

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Summer3

@Summer3

IF-Stunnerz

+ 2

Posted: 8 years ago

This content was originally posted by: ibnbatuta
Yes, I have also read about this. Amartya Sen apparently wrote that there was a famine in Bengal because Bengalis ate too much rice.

I wonder how he knew about this. 😆

Well most Indians do take a lot of rice especially those from the countryside.

But it seems that there was food but people had not money to buy them.

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1047050

Posted: 8 years ago

This content was originally posted by: Summer3

Well most Indians do take a lot of rice especially those from the countryside.
But it seems that there was food but people had not money to buy them.

Farmers don't need money to buy grain from their own land. It's pretty common knowledge how Bengal farmers were forced to grow opium rather than foodgrain.

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Druids

@Druids

Senior Member

Posted: 8 years ago

This content was originally posted by: K.Universe.

"Where is the famine" is a trick question. The correct answer is "in India". If 1/6 of the billion plus population is undernourished, if India is home to the largest undernourished and hungry population in the world and yet if there is sufficient food production that "surplus" is being exported out, then yes, by definition there is, even though technically there isn't. Go figure!

http://www.indiafoodbanking.org/hunger

Reason I brought up the current stats is to point out that government policies of the past few decades could very well be causing the hunger issue to persist coupled with other factors such as exports, inflation, droughts and more, and these factors could very well have existed even back in 1943 (as "refute" to the original claim)

Hope you follow.

P.S: US debt has as much to do with this subject as you have to do with Mensa so unless you want to troll in the topic that you yourself created, please stick to famine / hunger.

Sorry K.Universe Sir, I didn't realise that your Mensa IQ brain found it too taxing to hold two thoughts.

P.S. Why this urgency to bring pea-brained arguments to disprove something that the plundering country have hardly ever disputed themselves.

Edited by Druids - 8 years ago

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@K.Universe.

IF-Dazzler

Posted: 8 years ago

This content was originally posted by: Druids

Why this urgency to bring pea-brained arguments to disprove something that the plundering country have hardly ever disputed themselves.

To remind the people of the mansion that whenever they see dingbats floating kooky theories they should take a position regarding truth only on the basis of logic, reason, and empiricism. To do the same myself whenever I find some time.

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