Originally posted by: PhoeniXof_Hades
As soon as you can prove that the practice of polygamy did not exist prior to the introduction of Islam, you will have a point; until then, your assumption on people converting to Islam just for the sake of marrying multiple wives is just that - it is an assumption.
Now where have I said any such thing (bolded part) ???Rather I agreed that polygamy existed even amongst Hindu kings & also stated the reasons why it wud have been followed back then. But as times changed laws were brought in to stop that practice as the reasons then were no longer present in the present age. As for conversion , I was talking of the present day context. Since bigamy is illegal under Hindu marriage Act , men have been taking refuge of this religious permission as granted by Islam .
Statistics may surprise you, but the majority of Muslim men (along with the converted ones) are monogamous, and a large percentage of people from the non-Muslim population gets engaged polygamous/polyandrous relationship, too.
I have not refuted this anywhere in my post . Most Muslims are monogamous as it does make a lot of practical sense in todays world ! But if they do, its not considered illegal ' weather or not the earlier wife consented freely or not is another story. But in hindus & christians, sikhs, jain, budhist, don't know about others ' the person engaging in polygamy is liable to face legal action. He wud have to first divorce his earlier wife which can be a long messy affair unlike in Islam where a triple talaq is said to B enough to divorce the wife ( don't know if wife can similarly divorce her husband ) .
Here , I wud like to know if a triple talaq uttered under one breath or even an sms is sufficient to divorce or does it need some time gap say for reconsideration before pronouncing a final Talaq ? I ve read different versions regarding this so thought I might as well get this clarified.
Furthermore, if you want to have multiple spouses, then you can go ahead and do it (as long as it is legal in your country; if it isn't, then you cannot get engaged into polygamous relation even if you do convert yourself into one), without being/converting a Muslim.
I havent understood the bolded part here' how can one convert without converting? Perhaps U meant to say that either way it wud b illegal, but NO . Bigamy wud B legal at least in India , at present, if done by a muslim. So if a person converts & then marries then he is no longer covered by the Hindu Marriage Act that prohibits bigamy. I hope I m clear enough. What is surprising is that the Islamic scriptures say that multiple marriages are permitted only if the man can B fair to all his wives (as quoted by members here), then how come these ppl get away with 2 or more marriages without proving that they are being fair to all the wives?
Therefore your assumption on people converting to Islam just for the sake of getting engaged into a polygamous relation is just nonsensical.
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